I have not seen anyone in the category of (doctors, scientists, researchers) that I respect or trust yet say that the “Long Covid” even exists as a “disease”. Most say the symptoms are in essence vaccine related. So what exactly are we talking about here? It seems to me that the “Long Covid” mythology has been pushed by Big Pharma and their minions to justify a particular set of vaccine related adverse reactions (side effects). All in pursuit of making “Covid” seem more severe than it is; with the hope of convincing the brainwashed sheep to continue to get injections. But I could be wrong.
Yes I know someone who developed Long COVID as well. She got COVID in March 2020 and went from being someone who could run 10km+ without thinking about it to someone who still struggled to cross the room without getting short of breath 9 months later. All this was before the vax became available and she refused to go into hospital so only received antibiotics for pneumonia. I have heard many say long COVID does not exist and I might believe that if I didn't know first hand about this lady.
“There is no virus” is a psyop, which seems intended to confuse, to “muddy the waters”, to divide, conquer, and discredit those who challenge the official narrative. The virus is real and infectious, and is not an influenza virus. Please note that the evidence I provide here does not indicate that a pandemic occurred (there was no pandemic that justified “Operation Warp Speed” and lockdowns). These issues are not the subject of this post.
PHYLOGENETIC TREES ARE PROOF POSITIVE OF THE EXISTENCE OF SARS-COV-2 VIRUS: The evidence presented here indicates only that SARS-CoV-2 does exist and my own personal experience is that the infection in some individuals is quite serious. It damn near killed me, did apparent permanent damage, severely sickened my daughter until I found her a doctor that prescribed ivermectin (she recovered in hours), severely sickened and damaged some friends. This is not “sniffles” as some have said. Easiest way to prove the virus—do an internet search for "phylogenetic tree of SARS-CoV-2". You will find that many independent research groups from many nations around the world have sequenced and analyzed full viral nucleotide sequences of variants from tissues of patients and deceased, deposited these sequences in public data bases, and published analyses in peer reviewed journals. These are independent research groups using standard methodology and this cannot be faked (not on this global scale). I am a professional molecular phylogenecist and I have generated and published many such analyses over the years and taught this methodology to graduate students. For the most part, people who promote this "no virus" trick have never done this kind of work, which includes intense educational background, many years at the lab bench including PCR and nucleic acid sequencing, data analysis, and publication. Their misguided followers have never done this either. Those who say proof of virus is not a valid question have zero real world experience or comprehension in molecular phylogenetics, or any related science for that matter, and spread disinformation. Without comprehensive real-world, productive experience they cannot and will not knowledgeably address my point about proof of the virus using phylogenetic analysis. I will be glad to debate those with extensive expertise, but I cannot imagine that there is such a person, as anyone who fully understands what I am saying will agree with me. If you wish to challenge my comment, please begin with a valid refutation of my phylogenetic method of proof so as not to waste time and space advising me to read articles or visit a website, etc.
ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION OF SARS-COV-2 VIRUS: PCR primers isolate the viral genetic material. DNA sequencing identifies the isolated PCR product. Just as PCR and sequencing isolate and identify the viral genetic material, the same methodology is used in crime labs in every state, fed government, and around the world to isolate and identify genetic material from a contaminated crime scene to either exonerate or convict an accused suspect. In forensics, both direct nucleotide sequence and short tandem repeat (STR) analysis are used. STR analysis provides the number of tandem repeats at each locus, from which the nucleotide sequence is inferred. The validity of this methodology is established and accepted by the entire global scientific and legal system. If PCR and sequencing is reliable enough to isolate nucleic acid in order to identify a criminal perpetrator, the same method is also reliable enough to isolate and identify virus genetic material. If a critic does not accept this reality, then by default they do not accept forensic analysis. There are many convicts in prisons around the world that must be released if forensic methodology is flawed. If forensic methodology is not flawed, then virus genetic analysis must be accepted. It is the same methodology. One cannot have it both ways.
Interesting summary. I am not sure it is a psyops but I agree the 'no virus theory' does not fit with real world experience. Have you looked at J J Couey's work? He has a fascinating theory about clones.
Once again... no current outspoken and active (doctor, researcher, or scientist) has come out and said that "Long Covid" exists as a extended version of Covid without the Covid vaccine being part of the equation. If you have someone that you trust and has publicly announced that "Long Covid" exists without the vaccine, let me know his/her name.
Dr Mollie James and Dr. Peter McCullough are 2 doctors right now treating patients with Long Covid without ever having taken the vaccine. They are both on Twitter.
Indeed, I don't doubt that it exists either. Just that true Long Covid is far, far less common than the fearmongers and MSM claim it is, and that the vast majority of supposed cases are either Long Lockdown, Long Jab Injury, thiamine deficiency or some other nutritional deficiency, or something else. Or all of the above.
They have protocols to treat the vaccine injured. I follow their work. Neither have said that what is called Long Covid is a stand alone Covid 19 disease. There are no recognized set of symptoms that any legitimate doctor or scientist or researcher have yet identified. Please provide me with the name of any doctor, scientist, or researcher who is not a Pharma shill who says Long Covid is a form of Covid 19. Please prove me wrong.
I have a friend who's lab was working on Covid at Liverpool school of tropical medicine as soon as the disease occurred as their school was closed to students. They caught covid in January 2020 and had all neurological symptoms ,no respiratory,that lasted at least a year. I don't know if they are still ongoing. A respected scientist who I trust.
So are you and him saying this is Long Covid? FYI... there are currently over 200 symptoms associated with "Long Covid". This is one of the reasons it has yet to be classed as a disease. The intersections with issues (injuries) caused by the vaccine, in my mind makes it a vaccine injury stimulated malady. Now working in a Covid lab could expose one to the virus in a non-traditional way. This is a respiratory virus that would normally be "sequestered" in the respiratory system. Injecting the virus Spike Protein directly into the body were it gets into the blood stream and travels throughout the body is not something that would usually happen naturally. It is my understanding that the Spike Proteins (the body does not know what to do with them) are encased in exosomes and deposited in the spleen. At some point the spleen releases them and they travel to the brain stem and then into the brain. Now you have spike proteins (foreign proteins) attached to your brain cells. So what happened in the lab is something we can't know. FYI - shedding of exosomes from the vaccinated folks can cause the spike proteins to enter your body and make you sick. I recommend 3 things to help with this. #Stay far away from vaccinated people #2 Take ivermectine if you are exposed to them #3 Take Nattokinase if you are exposed to them.
There were no vaccines then so it was attributed to the virus and was called long covid when I was told about it, but perhaps the word might not have existed then. Dr Been gives good analysis of long covid from either virus or vaccine and how they tell the difference..
Ok - since none of the many scientists, researchers, doctors that are on the forefront of these issues that I follow have yet to say that Long Covid exists as a stand alone disease without the vaccine, I am going to assume that Long Covid had been invented by someone in the vaccine industry to justify more injections. They are right now trying blame the myocarditis in the vaccinated as a Covid 19 issue. With over 200 known symptoms, I think it will be impossible to ever classify Long Covid as a stand alone disease. Dr Peter McCullough recently said he believes most of what is called Long Covid is most certainly connected to the vaccine in some way. Either through vaccination or exposure to shedding of spike proteins.
that's extremely important point. Or look at D. Feinstein.... Trump's actions and advertisements got rid of many children, young people, the American army, all pilots, health care workers, etc, etc, who trusted 'the science' and himself got spared... That would be indeed a nice test to find out WHO got WHAT, something the mod mRNA manufacturers know already anyway.
From the outset I thought PCR should easily distinguish between the virus and vaccine spike RNA, so it's fantastic to see it validated.
The big companies codon-optimise everything, but I'm surprised a bit, because the viral RNA code was already adequate for humans, given the high infection rates.
But then, I recall an early analysis by Yuri Deigin such that he found the codons of the Wuhan virus to be most similar to ecoli (from memory), from which he suggested the virus had spent a lot of time being grown in such micro-organisms (lab development). And now I'm thinking about the extent of gastrointestinal injury from covid - I wonder if the virus had greater virulence potential on our microflora as a consequence of such development.
This is a GREAT POST! Thank you for the answer I was waiting for') Two questions to this content.
-The blue vrs. blue (to me) is not quite clear. maybe red for the other signals?
- what is the reason for the primers no to react at all with the Wuhan-1 sequence?? Was the Wuhan-1 sequence right??? For the injection injured this here is priceless, but for the non-jabbed, if there is NO REACTION then how one should know one has/had any virus at all??? I must have missed something important here...
Someone please explain this to me...OK, so nearly everyone has had Covid, whether or not they have had a vax. And people who have had a vax already know that they have. So whether these tests differentiate between Covid spike and vax spike, since most people have had Covid, what is the purpose of trying to differentiate? Won't nearly everyone have the Covid spike whether or not they have been vaxed? And everyone who has been vaxed will have the vax spike, but they already knew this. So what is the purpose of this information?
It would be very helpful for people with ongoing complaints. If there are multiple copies of a vaccine spike mRNA detected in a person with ongoing injury, yet none of the virus, then one could suggest that their injury was being maintained by vaccine-related products.
There’s still a good amount of injured people on this earth that have only had covid and aren’t vaxed or have only been vaxxed and never had covid or have never had either. Dont you see! I nearly fell out of bed when I read this — THIS IS THE TEST TO STOP ALL TESTS! this is it !
Now we just need pathologists and labs to pull there fingers out!
What baffles me is why Pfizer and Moderna would use a functional furin cleavage site in their spikes , while other vaccines , like J&J / Janssen , mutated the furin site to make it non-functional.
It also baffles me that this hasn't caused a huge stink. Am I missing something? Or is this just one atrocity among many ?
Some info circa 2021 on the different vaccines re: FCS can be found here :
Maybe the functional fusion protein is not such a big deal as long as you have the double proline modification. It seems the PP inhibits fusogenicity with or without an intact FCS , in cell culture , anyway ( Fig 4B ):
I don't think it should matter if the furin cleavage site remained because the 2PP alteration would supposedly hold the spike protein in form, thereby preventing that usual cell-entry mechanism.
J&J/Janssen along with Pfizer and Moderna licensed the patent for this 2PP insert (enriching the NIH, Scripps & Dartmouth), I understood.
Astrazeneca however didn't license it, and their spike protein product may be somewhat weak.
I haven't looked into J&J, so taking your word for the mutation...
In short, I can't imagine. After spending a lot of time with the codon alterations in GM crop protein inventions, and after looking at the differences between Pfizer and Moderna mRNA codons, I suspect these alterations are gratuitous to some extent to make sufficient changes to justify patent invention requirements.
For lucky people the Pfizer mRNA "vaccine" may have been harmless.
However from various points of evidence I have the impression that the Astrazeneca vaccine (an adenovirus DNA plasmid vaccine like J&J) was more uniform, though I can't guarantee there weren't near-placebo/control doses.
From a decade on analysis and eventual publication on the messes of genetic inventions I saw each of the types of genetic vaccine (mRNA & adenovirus) as carrying huge risks, in different ways, not even considering corporate fraud and regulatory malfeasance.
Like you, I think it's plausible the media was used to ditch one type of invention in favour of another - I wondered the same myself.
I don't have access to data that would allow for a comparison of a genuine 'full strength' Pfizer vaccine to one of the adenovirus vaccines. I don't even have data on vaccine type by age which appears is a significant factor in injury. In Australia the Astrazeneca vaccine was mostly given to people over 50, whereas, after administration to the most elderly in Australia the Pfizer was dedicated to younger people. Thus, comparing adverse events reports collected by our drug regulator the TGA isn't that helpful.
In short - I can't comment - I wouldn't go near either of them.
There was something particular about the genetic construct of the Astrazeneca vaccine that I thought was outrageous. It used a leader sequence from anti-blood-clotting protein (TPA), presumably to direct the newly-created spike protein to the cell membrane/blood vessel walls. I saw this competition for resources for an anti-blood-clotting protein in a vaccine that ended up being pulled for catastrophic blood clotting. Insane development. I haven't see the sequence for J&J.
Just before the vaccine rollout began in Australia our TGA brought in an executive to oversee vaccine safety. This executive was a revolving door employee from Glaxo Smith Kline, the maker of the tragic swine flu Pandemrix vaccine the permanently disabled over a thousand EU children in 2009 and business partner of Pfizer.
Peak corruption, but certainly this may have allowed the interests of Pfizer to be promoted over those of say Astrazeneca.
It was pretty obvious to me early that they were greasing the skids for
P & M , and super-gluing the skids for all others. All about the money and political payoffs , I suspect.
The way to evaluate the vaccines , IMO , is to forget about efficacy re:infection , since that's lousy for all. Look at cumulative excess deaths after vaccine rollout by country where different vaccines were used. Cuba , for example , made their own vaccines , and have done very well since the vaccines rolled out , after getting destroyed earlier.
I don't think mRNA is the magic they portray it to be.
That's really interesting, taking away many things from it, the first was J&J reporting that the mutated FCS alone was better for neutralising antibodies compared to the 2PP alone, albeit in an adenovirus background. Naturally one would wonder why Pfizer/Moderna wouldn't mutate it. Perhaps it wasn't so good in the mRNA, perhaps they considered the FCS to be an important epitope site because it would've been very significant in the virus itself. Diverging a little onto GM crop development.... Monsanto would develop a wide range of amended codes to trial and reported on many in their patents. Not every sequence had every potential advantage - perhaps they didn't have the commercial opportunity time to determine what was the best and why. But it didn't stop them licensing one of their sequences to Syngenta to use in a GM corn crop 'competing' against their own. The impression was that there were a range of these ag-chem companies developing their own GM crops, whereas really there was a massive cross-licensing effort going on. Returning to the discussion, perhaps this sort of thing was happening with these vaccines. Perhaps they left a sequence with a potential competitive advantage for another player. Pfizer in fact was quite late to licence the 2PP. The inventor himself Barney S Graham had moved across to Moderna to work on their vaccine - perhaps Pfizer had the superior immunogenic LNP vehicle.
The other thing I've taken away is their rejection of the tPA signal peptide, yet I understand J&J had similar clotting issues to Astrazeneca - haven't seen comparisons though. I went back to look at reports on the AZ constructs but don't have a lot of detail. The tPA section is described only as a 'leader sequence' rather than as a signal peptide. Sometimes Monsanto et al would engineer non-protein-coding leading sequences into their GM mRNA to protect it from degradation, so I'm not sure what was in AZ - don't have the sequences.
Take the test and find out if you were ever asymptomatic, slept with a recently jabbed person, sat on a covid positive toilet, drank a pregnant mothers breast milk for a laugh 😂
Sorry I’m just trying to make a pint here, THIS IS THE TEST!
A lot to unpack in that little statement. If you ain’t sick, ya ain’t got the disease. Conversely, if you tested everyone, as we did for the SARS Cov 2 virus, for every known viral disease we’d suddenly have a much higher number of cases for those diseases. Our bodies are constantly fighting off numerous disease causing agents, yet, most of us are healthy most of the time. It is only when, for whatever reasons, our bodies are not up to the fight that we get sick and thus have a disease. Cancer being a possible exception.
The point I was trying to make with my question is that many who have had neither the shot nor covid have reported symptoms of long Covid. The one universal factor in all three groups has been lockdowns. I am of the belief that the donation is real but hat a large number of those who are reported to have long Covid are suffering from the adverse affects of other Covid mitigation measures; mainly lockdowns and their spin-offs like alcohol and substance abuse and the long known detrimental aspects of a sedentary lifestyle. Face it, lockdowns forced many into being involuntary couch potatoes are something similar.
I have not seen anyone in the category of (doctors, scientists, researchers) that I respect or trust yet say that the “Long Covid” even exists as a “disease”. Most say the symptoms are in essence vaccine related. So what exactly are we talking about here? It seems to me that the “Long Covid” mythology has been pushed by Big Pharma and their minions to justify a particular set of vaccine related adverse reactions (side effects). All in pursuit of making “Covid” seem more severe than it is; with the hope of convincing the brainwashed sheep to continue to get injections. But I could be wrong.
Bingo!
Now there is a tool to prove it.
I know three people that developed Long COVID who were not vaccinated.
Yes I know someone who developed Long COVID as well. She got COVID in March 2020 and went from being someone who could run 10km+ without thinking about it to someone who still struggled to cross the room without getting short of breath 9 months later. All this was before the vax became available and she refused to go into hospital so only received antibiotics for pneumonia. I have heard many say long COVID does not exist and I might believe that if I didn't know first hand about this lady.
UPDATED 8_13_23
“There is no virus” is a psyop, which seems intended to confuse, to “muddy the waters”, to divide, conquer, and discredit those who challenge the official narrative. The virus is real and infectious, and is not an influenza virus. Please note that the evidence I provide here does not indicate that a pandemic occurred (there was no pandemic that justified “Operation Warp Speed” and lockdowns). These issues are not the subject of this post.
PHYLOGENETIC TREES ARE PROOF POSITIVE OF THE EXISTENCE OF SARS-COV-2 VIRUS: The evidence presented here indicates only that SARS-CoV-2 does exist and my own personal experience is that the infection in some individuals is quite serious. It damn near killed me, did apparent permanent damage, severely sickened my daughter until I found her a doctor that prescribed ivermectin (she recovered in hours), severely sickened and damaged some friends. This is not “sniffles” as some have said. Easiest way to prove the virus—do an internet search for "phylogenetic tree of SARS-CoV-2". You will find that many independent research groups from many nations around the world have sequenced and analyzed full viral nucleotide sequences of variants from tissues of patients and deceased, deposited these sequences in public data bases, and published analyses in peer reviewed journals. These are independent research groups using standard methodology and this cannot be faked (not on this global scale). I am a professional molecular phylogenecist and I have generated and published many such analyses over the years and taught this methodology to graduate students. For the most part, people who promote this "no virus" trick have never done this kind of work, which includes intense educational background, many years at the lab bench including PCR and nucleic acid sequencing, data analysis, and publication. Their misguided followers have never done this either. Those who say proof of virus is not a valid question have zero real world experience or comprehension in molecular phylogenetics, or any related science for that matter, and spread disinformation. Without comprehensive real-world, productive experience they cannot and will not knowledgeably address my point about proof of the virus using phylogenetic analysis. I will be glad to debate those with extensive expertise, but I cannot imagine that there is such a person, as anyone who fully understands what I am saying will agree with me. If you wish to challenge my comment, please begin with a valid refutation of my phylogenetic method of proof so as not to waste time and space advising me to read articles or visit a website, etc.
ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION OF SARS-COV-2 VIRUS: PCR primers isolate the viral genetic material. DNA sequencing identifies the isolated PCR product. Just as PCR and sequencing isolate and identify the viral genetic material, the same methodology is used in crime labs in every state, fed government, and around the world to isolate and identify genetic material from a contaminated crime scene to either exonerate or convict an accused suspect. In forensics, both direct nucleotide sequence and short tandem repeat (STR) analysis are used. STR analysis provides the number of tandem repeats at each locus, from which the nucleotide sequence is inferred. The validity of this methodology is established and accepted by the entire global scientific and legal system. If PCR and sequencing is reliable enough to isolate nucleic acid in order to identify a criminal perpetrator, the same method is also reliable enough to isolate and identify virus genetic material. If a critic does not accept this reality, then by default they do not accept forensic analysis. There are many convicts in prisons around the world that must be released if forensic methodology is flawed. If forensic methodology is not flawed, then virus genetic analysis must be accepted. It is the same methodology. One cannot have it both ways.
Interesting summary. I am not sure it is a psyops but I agree the 'no virus theory' does not fit with real world experience. Have you looked at J J Couey's work? He has a fascinating theory about clones.
https://gigaohmbiological.com/archive
As someone who is a professional I would be interested to know what your thoughts are on J J Couey's theories.
Once again... no current outspoken and active (doctor, researcher, or scientist) has come out and said that "Long Covid" exists as a extended version of Covid without the Covid vaccine being part of the equation. If you have someone that you trust and has publicly announced that "Long Covid" exists without the vaccine, let me know his/her name.
Dr Mollie James and Dr. Peter McCullough are 2 doctors right now treating patients with Long Covid without ever having taken the vaccine. They are both on Twitter.
I don’t doubt it exists.
I had long recovery.
I just think long Vax is more frequently labeled long CoVID than the other way around.
Indeed, I don't doubt that it exists either. Just that true Long Covid is far, far less common than the fearmongers and MSM claim it is, and that the vast majority of supposed cases are either Long Lockdown, Long Jab Injury, thiamine deficiency or some other nutritional deficiency, or something else. Or all of the above.
I agree 100%. I have been on several Facebook long Covid groups and you never know and many people forget to mention it.
They have protocols to treat the vaccine injured. I follow their work. Neither have said that what is called Long Covid is a stand alone Covid 19 disease. There are no recognized set of symptoms that any legitimate doctor or scientist or researcher have yet identified. Please provide me with the name of any doctor, scientist, or researcher who is not a Pharma shill who says Long Covid is a form of Covid 19. Please prove me wrong.
I have a friend who's lab was working on Covid at Liverpool school of tropical medicine as soon as the disease occurred as their school was closed to students. They caught covid in January 2020 and had all neurological symptoms ,no respiratory,that lasted at least a year. I don't know if they are still ongoing. A respected scientist who I trust.
So are you and him saying this is Long Covid? FYI... there are currently over 200 symptoms associated with "Long Covid". This is one of the reasons it has yet to be classed as a disease. The intersections with issues (injuries) caused by the vaccine, in my mind makes it a vaccine injury stimulated malady. Now working in a Covid lab could expose one to the virus in a non-traditional way. This is a respiratory virus that would normally be "sequestered" in the respiratory system. Injecting the virus Spike Protein directly into the body were it gets into the blood stream and travels throughout the body is not something that would usually happen naturally. It is my understanding that the Spike Proteins (the body does not know what to do with them) are encased in exosomes and deposited in the spleen. At some point the spleen releases them and they travel to the brain stem and then into the brain. Now you have spike proteins (foreign proteins) attached to your brain cells. So what happened in the lab is something we can't know. FYI - shedding of exosomes from the vaccinated folks can cause the spike proteins to enter your body and make you sick. I recommend 3 things to help with this. #Stay far away from vaccinated people #2 Take ivermectine if you are exposed to them #3 Take Nattokinase if you are exposed to them.
There were no vaccines then so it was attributed to the virus and was called long covid when I was told about it, but perhaps the word might not have existed then. Dr Been gives good analysis of long covid from either virus or vaccine and how they tell the difference..
Ok - since none of the many scientists, researchers, doctors that are on the forefront of these issues that I follow have yet to say that Long Covid exists as a stand alone disease without the vaccine, I am going to assume that Long Covid had been invented by someone in the vaccine industry to justify more injections. They are right now trying blame the myocarditis in the vaccinated as a Covid 19 issue. With over 200 known symptoms, I think it will be impossible to ever classify Long Covid as a stand alone disease. Dr Peter McCullough recently said he believes most of what is called Long Covid is most certainly connected to the vaccine in some way. Either through vaccination or exposure to shedding of spike proteins.
Finally an answer to this question (two-plus years later). Thanks so much.
Would like to see a test to determine if certain higher ups took the vaccine or not. You know, for future Nuremberg?
no need, just look
that's extremely important point. Or look at D. Feinstein.... Trump's actions and advertisements got rid of many children, young people, the American army, all pilots, health care workers, etc, etc, who trusted 'the science' and himself got spared... That would be indeed a nice test to find out WHO got WHAT, something the mod mRNA manufacturers know already anyway.
Ouchy looks fine, so it’s not everyone, but what percentage?
Small typo:
"This is not surprising given the many labs that have no[w] reproduced this work on the vaccines ..."
Looks like you meant "now" not "no".
From the outset I thought PCR should easily distinguish between the virus and vaccine spike RNA, so it's fantastic to see it validated.
The big companies codon-optimise everything, but I'm surprised a bit, because the viral RNA code was already adequate for humans, given the high infection rates.
But then, I recall an early analysis by Yuri Deigin such that he found the codons of the Wuhan virus to be most similar to ecoli (from memory), from which he suggested the virus had spent a lot of time being grown in such micro-organisms (lab development). And now I'm thinking about the extent of gastrointestinal injury from covid - I wonder if the virus had greater virulence potential on our microflora as a consequence of such development.
Thank you Kevin. Peace.
This is a GREAT POST! Thank you for the answer I was waiting for') Two questions to this content.
-The blue vrs. blue (to me) is not quite clear. maybe red for the other signals?
- what is the reason for the primers no to react at all with the Wuhan-1 sequence?? Was the Wuhan-1 sequence right??? For the injection injured this here is priceless, but for the non-jabbed, if there is NO REACTION then how one should know one has/had any virus at all??? I must have missed something important here...
The blue Vs blue is just replicas with the assay on spike Vax.
The spike Wuhan showed no signal at all.
thanks for the update.
The cheat sheet at the end is just the sort of thing I'd appreciate if I was working on this.
Someone please explain this to me...OK, so nearly everyone has had Covid, whether or not they have had a vax. And people who have had a vax already know that they have. So whether these tests differentiate between Covid spike and vax spike, since most people have had Covid, what is the purpose of trying to differentiate? Won't nearly everyone have the Covid spike whether or not they have been vaxed? And everyone who has been vaxed will have the vax spike, but they already knew this. So what is the purpose of this information?
Blood banks and fertility clinics will need a tool to screen which samples are vaxxed as more and more people demand Vax free donors.
Pathologists may want this info for determining if a patient has residual DNA/RNA that could be related to symptoms.
Can’t be assumed that all vaxxed people fail to clear it. Some may clear it faster than others.
It would be very helpful for people with ongoing complaints. If there are multiple copies of a vaccine spike mRNA detected in a person with ongoing injury, yet none of the virus, then one could suggest that their injury was being maintained by vaccine-related products.
There’s still a good amount of injured people on this earth that have only had covid and aren’t vaxed or have only been vaxxed and never had covid or have never had either. Dont you see! I nearly fell out of bed when I read this — THIS IS THE TEST TO STOP ALL TESTS! this is it !
Now we just need pathologists and labs to pull there fingers out!
What baffles me is why Pfizer and Moderna would use a functional furin cleavage site in their spikes , while other vaccines , like J&J / Janssen , mutated the furin site to make it non-functional.
It also baffles me that this hasn't caused a huge stink. Am I missing something? Or is this just one atrocity among many ?
Some info circa 2021 on the different vaccines re: FCS can be found here :
https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fimmu.2021.701501/full
Maybe the functional fusion protein is not such a big deal as long as you have the double proline modification. It seems the PP inhibits fusogenicity with or without an intact FCS , in cell culture , anyway ( Fig 4B ):
https://www.nature.com/articles/s41541-020-00243-x
I don't think it should matter if the furin cleavage site remained because the 2PP alteration would supposedly hold the spike protein in form, thereby preventing that usual cell-entry mechanism.
J&J/Janssen along with Pfizer and Moderna licensed the patent for this 2PP insert (enriching the NIH, Scripps & Dartmouth), I understood.
Astrazeneca however didn't license it, and their spike protein product may be somewhat weak.
Thanks. Why do you think J&J mutated their FCS ? An abundance of caution ,perhaps ?
I haven't looked into J&J, so taking your word for the mutation...
In short, I can't imagine. After spending a lot of time with the codon alterations in GM crop protein inventions, and after looking at the differences between Pfizer and Moderna mRNA codons, I suspect these alterations are gratuitous to some extent to make sufficient changes to justify patent invention requirements.
Have you seen my post below on this?
Marko and Madeleine Love,
May I ask if you believe the J&J vax is as destructive as the mRNA vaccines?
Why did they allow the problems with the J&J to become public knowledge, while ignoring the obvious problems with the P and M vaccines?
Thank you.
With the clear three-way batch variability in the Pfizer mRNA "vaccine" (at least), as evidenced in Schmeling et al, one is not looking at a uniform product https://impfen-wer-will.de/application/files/8916/8198/7909/Schmeling-Batch-dependent_safety_of_the_BNT162b2_mRNA_COVID-19_vaccine.pdf
For lucky people the Pfizer mRNA "vaccine" may have been harmless.
However from various points of evidence I have the impression that the Astrazeneca vaccine (an adenovirus DNA plasmid vaccine like J&J) was more uniform, though I can't guarantee there weren't near-placebo/control doses.
From a decade on analysis and eventual publication on the messes of genetic inventions I saw each of the types of genetic vaccine (mRNA & adenovirus) as carrying huge risks, in different ways, not even considering corporate fraud and regulatory malfeasance.
Like you, I think it's plausible the media was used to ditch one type of invention in favour of another - I wondered the same myself.
I don't have access to data that would allow for a comparison of a genuine 'full strength' Pfizer vaccine to one of the adenovirus vaccines. I don't even have data on vaccine type by age which appears is a significant factor in injury. In Australia the Astrazeneca vaccine was mostly given to people over 50, whereas, after administration to the most elderly in Australia the Pfizer was dedicated to younger people. Thus, comparing adverse events reports collected by our drug regulator the TGA isn't that helpful.
In short - I can't comment - I wouldn't go near either of them.
There was something particular about the genetic construct of the Astrazeneca vaccine that I thought was outrageous. It used a leader sequence from anti-blood-clotting protein (TPA), presumably to direct the newly-created spike protein to the cell membrane/blood vessel walls. I saw this competition for resources for an anti-blood-clotting protein in a vaccine that ended up being pulled for catastrophic blood clotting. Insane development. I haven't see the sequence for J&J.
Adding...
Just before the vaccine rollout began in Australia our TGA brought in an executive to oversee vaccine safety. This executive was a revolving door employee from Glaxo Smith Kline, the maker of the tragic swine flu Pandemrix vaccine the permanently disabled over a thousand EU children in 2009 and business partner of Pfizer.
Peak corruption, but certainly this may have allowed the interests of Pfizer to be promoted over those of say Astrazeneca.
It was pretty obvious to me early that they were greasing the skids for
P & M , and super-gluing the skids for all others. All about the money and political payoffs , I suspect.
The way to evaluate the vaccines , IMO , is to forget about efficacy re:infection , since that's lousy for all. Look at cumulative excess deaths after vaccine rollout by country where different vaccines were used. Cuba , for example , made their own vaccines , and have done very well since the vaccines rolled out , after getting destroyed earlier.
I don't think mRNA is the magic they portray it to be.
Thank you for your reply Marko.
This paper discusses the FCS mutations in the abstract and elsewhere:
https://www.nature.com/articles/s41541-020-00243-x
Yes, good post. I was not aware of the TPA issue. They're too cute by half with these "improvements".
That's really interesting, taking away many things from it, the first was J&J reporting that the mutated FCS alone was better for neutralising antibodies compared to the 2PP alone, albeit in an adenovirus background. Naturally one would wonder why Pfizer/Moderna wouldn't mutate it. Perhaps it wasn't so good in the mRNA, perhaps they considered the FCS to be an important epitope site because it would've been very significant in the virus itself. Diverging a little onto GM crop development.... Monsanto would develop a wide range of amended codes to trial and reported on many in their patents. Not every sequence had every potential advantage - perhaps they didn't have the commercial opportunity time to determine what was the best and why. But it didn't stop them licensing one of their sequences to Syngenta to use in a GM corn crop 'competing' against their own. The impression was that there were a range of these ag-chem companies developing their own GM crops, whereas really there was a massive cross-licensing effort going on. Returning to the discussion, perhaps this sort of thing was happening with these vaccines. Perhaps they left a sequence with a potential competitive advantage for another player. Pfizer in fact was quite late to licence the 2PP. The inventor himself Barney S Graham had moved across to Moderna to work on their vaccine - perhaps Pfizer had the superior immunogenic LNP vehicle.
The other thing I've taken away is their rejection of the tPA signal peptide, yet I understand J&J had similar clotting issues to Astrazeneca - haven't seen comparisons though. I went back to look at reports on the AZ constructs but don't have a lot of detail. The tPA section is described only as a 'leader sequence' rather than as a signal peptide. Sometimes Monsanto et al would engineer non-protein-coding leading sequences into their GM mRNA to protect it from degradation, so I'm not sure what was in AZ - don't have the sequences.
That's easy. They are criminal organizations.They do not give a shit about people. Peace.
How about those of us who have the symptoms of Long Covid/Vax but have had neither?
Take the test and find out if you were ever asymptomatic, slept with a recently jabbed person, sat on a covid positive toilet, drank a pregnant mothers breast milk for a laugh 😂
Sorry I’m just trying to make a pint here, THIS IS THE TEST!
A lot to unpack in that little statement. If you ain’t sick, ya ain’t got the disease. Conversely, if you tested everyone, as we did for the SARS Cov 2 virus, for every known viral disease we’d suddenly have a much higher number of cases for those diseases. Our bodies are constantly fighting off numerous disease causing agents, yet, most of us are healthy most of the time. It is only when, for whatever reasons, our bodies are not up to the fight that we get sick and thus have a disease. Cancer being a possible exception.
The point I was trying to make with my question is that many who have had neither the shot nor covid have reported symptoms of long Covid. The one universal factor in all three groups has been lockdowns. I am of the belief that the donation is real but hat a large number of those who are reported to have long Covid are suffering from the adverse affects of other Covid mitigation measures; mainly lockdowns and their spin-offs like alcohol and substance abuse and the long known detrimental aspects of a sedentary lifestyle. Face it, lockdowns forced many into being involuntary couch potatoes are something similar.
Ohh Jesus 🤦🏻 Okee dokey 👍🏻
At the risk of doxxing myself....no.
But I'm probably not famous enough for you to believe me.
Are they trying to murder us with this, that, or the other version of their bioweapons?
EVERYONE is now showing heavy loads of the nanotech, self-assembling fibers, dots, and chips.
They are spraying it on us. They are putting it on and in our food. It is now ubiquitous.
Thank you!!